Can someone please explain the difference between these two for me???
1) Posting an auction thread with a reserve
2) Posting a trade thread asking people to post their offer and the best acceptable offer(if there is one) gets the trade
Other than giving it the name "auction".....seriously, what's the difference?!?! I just don't understand this grumbling about no reserve. From what I can see the ONLY thing the reserve rule restricts is which section you can post your thread and what you can call it. Is calling it an "auction" really that important to people?
There is a significant difference between and "auction" with "reserve" and a trading thread.
Simply put, until addresses are exchanged, there is nothing binding on either party to a trade. I can make a post saying I am looking for a pin I don't have for a my [Pinpics]1799[/Pinpics]. You see that I don't have [Pinpics]1[/Pinpics] in my collection. You instantly write to me saying "I want to trade Pin 1 for your Pin 1799. Here is my address." However, until I confirm the trade also, it is simply not a go. You cannot compel me to trade PP 1799 for PP1.
Now, if I put up PP 1799 as an auction, with no reserve, and you are the only bidder with PP 1; you can compel the trade to take place. It becomes a contract. However, with a reserve you could not, since the bidder has not fulfilled the contract.
The biggest issue with a "reserve" in the context of these auctions is the fears that they are amorphous. Say I want a "good" pin for 1799. I do not believe this a proper reserve. What does that mean? My idea of "good" might differ from yours. As such, no contract can be formed as their is no meeting of minds.This leads to concern that the auctions are simply fishing expeditions.
There is a simple way to allow reserves to exist: the reserves must be quantifiable. Someone who knows nothing about pin trading should be able to given the facts and be able to say "yes, that reserve can be met." Examples of quantifiable reserves include (but would not be limited to):
*No Hidden Mickeys
*No Pins with More People Trading Than Wanting
*No Pirate pins
*At least [X Number] of pins of my wants list
*Any bid must include Stitch Pin
etc.
Any of these are quantifiable because anyone can look at the various factors and determine that a reserve has been meet. (I note that the someone might need to be taught what a "Hidden Mickey" or "Stitch" pin is).
Now, lets re-run my 1799 auction. I have placed the following reserve: "Any bid must have at least 2 pins off my wants list". Well, you look at my current wants list with 62 pins on it. That is a pretty tight reserve. It may discourage some or even many people from bidding. But you see that I have the Future World Icon WDI set on my list. So you bid:
Pin 1
[Pinpics]90261[/Pinpics]: WDI Epcot Center: World of Motion Logo
[Pinpics]90263[/Pinpics]: WDI Epcot Center: Communicore Logo
Now at the end of the time period for the auction comes and goes and you are the only bidder. Is this a fair trade? I would say no. Pin 1799 regularly sells for over a $500; the two WDI pins are currently being clearance for $5.00 each.
But can you compel the trade? The answer is probably yes. You have meet the reserve. Anyone can see that my reserve was "Two pins off my wants list" and both pins appeared on my wants list. So if I tried to back out, you could force me through various methods to make the trade.
Hence the difference between a trade posting and a quantifiable reserve auction.
kajtdd